It is not Required for Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) to be Literate to Hear from Others and then Claim it to be the Quran. – Dr Zakir Naik
MVWRSQA-10
Questioner: My name is Vinay Kumar and I’m an artist, I’m a painter and I want to ask one question that in your website you gave two reasons why Muhammad could not have copied from the holy Bible or from the other pre existing sources. So you gave answer that you claim that there were no Arabic translations of the Bible during the time of Muhammad but in
Sahih Al Bukhari vol. no. 6, book no. 60 no. 478 it says that Gospel has already been translated into Arabic by Warakha.
And also second thing is you said that Muhammad was illiterate and therefore couldn’t have read books such as the holy Bible but I am not satisfied with that answer because it wasn’t necessary for Muhammad to be literate in order to borrow stories from previous scriptures. Muhammad only needed to hear theses stories orally for borrowing to take place. After hearing these stories Muhammad revised then he wrote the theological presumptions and then tried to pass them off as revelation from God.
Dr. Zakir: The brother’s asked a very good question. He goes to the website so I am happy about that. InshaAllah, you’ll come to the truth. And I believe you are a Christian. Your name is Vinay Kumar, you’re a Christian I believe. And the brother said I gave two reasons on my website. Not two, I have given several. You have picked up two. I… fine.. I’ll come to it. Because you have to read in context these are not the only two reasons. These are two of the many reasons I gave. And one of the reasons I gave that Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu alaihe wa sallam) was an Ummi. As Allah says in the Quran in
Surah Ankaboot ch. No. 29 verse no. 48 that
We have made the last Prophet as an Ummi so that the blabbers will not use that as pretext.
You have to agree that between a literate and an illiterate it is more difficult for an illiterate, you have to agree that. Do you agree or not? More difficult, more difficult. If a person who is literate for him to copy is much more easier, he can hear also and read also. For a person who is illiterate he can only hear. So at least you have to agree with me for sake of argument it is difficult. . Do you agree? Yes, good MashaAllah. So these are points I am mentioning, they are many. This is not the only one point. Amongst the many points this is one of them. All the others follow.
Point no. 2 you mentioned I said that no Arabic version of the Bible was present and I agree with it yet. You quoted
Sahih Bukhari vol. no. 6 that Warkha, Yes he had knowledge about the Gospel. No where does it say that he translated. Brother I challenge you, I challenge you. According to Christian sources the first time, the first time the Bible was written was in the 10th centaury. That means the Christian scholars don’t know their homework. The first Arabic version of the Bible came much, hundreds of years after Prophet Muhammad. Yes Warakha, coming from the Bani Israel, he had knowledge of the scriptures and knew Arabic. Saying that he had translated… he may have written some notes but translated the full Bible, impossible. Nowhere does Sahih Bukhari say that Warkha translated the full Bible. I challenge you, it may say that Warakha had knowledge of the law and the Gospel, may have written some notes…
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